Hi, i have mk2 struts on my mk1. on both sides i have fitted the later model bearings (ones with the larger internal diameter), but on the N/S i am running a mk1 driveshaft that does not have the tapered end that the mk2 shaft has. the mk1 shaft is now dying as all the grease has escaped the cv joint and its beyond regreasing. im wondering if i should get another mk1 shaft, as no taper = no risk of damaging the bearing, or whether i should get a mk2 one. what would be the consequences of using a mk1 shaft with a mk2 bearing?
i understand that a mk2 shaft with a mk1 bearing would equal rapid bearing destruction due to the taper, but is it ok the other way round? thanks for reading lol
i understand that a mk2 shaft with a mk1 bearing would equal rapid bearing destruction due to the taper, but is it ok the other way round? thanks for reading lol